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15

Select the correct answer.
If f(x) = (x+1)-¹ and g(x)
= x^-2, what is the domain of f(x) = g(x)?

1 Answer

7 votes

Answer:

Explanation:


f(x)=g(x) \implies (1)/(x+1)=(1)/(x^(2))

This means the denominators cannot equal to (because then the fractions would be undefined) so the domain is
x \in \mathbb{R} -\{-1,0\}

User Osman Mazinov
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