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Describe the Squeeze Theorem as simply as possible.​

User Bkawan
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Hey there,

The squeeze theorem shows if
f(x)\leq g(x)\leq h(x) for all real numbers
(-\infty,~\infty) then f(x) = h(x) but g(x) has to equal that as well.

Let's say we have [
\lim_(n \to \infty) ((cos~x)/(x)) ]

~Apply the theorem

Note that [
-1 \leq cos~x \leq 1 ] and [
\lim_(n \to \infty) (-(1)/(x))\leq \lim_(n \to \infty) ((cos~x)/(x))\leq \lim_(n \to \infty) ((1)/(x)) ]

~Apply the infinity property to every side but the middle


\lim_(n \to \infty) (-(1)/(x)) = 0


\lim_(n \to \infty) ((1)/(x)) = 0

So...
\lim_(n \to \infty) ((cos~x)/(x))=0

Best of Luck!

User Chris Peacock
by
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