Register
In the 1600s, why did the monarchs of some European countries gain power in their political system (absolutism), while at the same time the monarchs of some European countries lost power (constitutionalism)?
188,440 views
25 votes
25 votes
In the 1600s, why did the monarchs of some European countries gain power in their political system (absolutism), while at the same time the monarchs of some European countries lost power (constitutionalism)?

User Wistar
by
2.9k points

1 Answer

24 votes
24 votes

Answer:The most common defense of monarchical absolutism, known as “the divine right of kings” theory, asserted that kings derived their authority from God. This view could justify even tyrannical rule as divinely ordained punishment, administered by rulers, for human sinfulness.


Explanation: sorry if I’m wrong this is all I know for that category

User Jom George
by
3.5k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

1.6m questions

2.0m answers

Other Questions

If a country or group of people do something to another country or group of people, does it affect the rest of the world? Did what King Leopold II do in the Congo affect the US? Does what the U.S. do to
Give me 3 important facts about the Jurassic Period. Thank you
What manufacturing industry did World War II MOST help establish in Texas? A) car manufacturing B) textile manufacturing C) airplane manufacturing Eliminate D) computer manufacturing
As a result of their dissatisfaction with the Catholic Church both Martin and Luther and Henry Vllll
Which of these is the most likely reason for the map to be called "The Fertile Crescent"? A. The highlighted land contained Mesopotamia where there were many babies born. B. The highlighted land is located
Link Copied!