100,050 views
36 votes
36 votes
Answer this please...Due Today!!!!

Answer this please...Due Today!!!!-example-1
User Hamza Abdaoui
by
2.8k points

1 Answer

21 votes
21 votes

Answer:1/36

Explanation:

Since the first one has a 1/6 chance because it is a 6-sided dice, and the second roll has to be 1/6. Once you multiply 1/6 by 1/6 you get 1/36

User Herzi
by
2.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.