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If a machine uses LESS effort to overcome a given resistance force (if Fe is less than FR), it has an actual mechanical advantage of Your answer: 0 Exactly 1 Less than 1 Greater than 1
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If a machine uses LESS effort to overcome a given resistance force (if Fe is less than FR), it has an actual mechanical advantage of

Your answer:
0
Exactly 1
Less than 1
Greater than 1

User Jminkler
by
6.4k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

greater than 1

Step-by-step explanation:

The mechanical advantage is the ratio Fr/Fe. So if Fr > Fe, the mechanical advantage is greater than 1.

User Sudhakar Chavali
by
5.1k points
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