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If you mix 1 cup of chocolate chips and 1 cup of raisins what is the percentage of chocolate chips

User Markiz
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4 votes

Answer:

50%

Explanation:

50% because when there is only 2 variables and they are each 1 cup there is an even amount of stuff and when you ask for only one percentage that would be 50% because everything is even. Even if you asked for the percentage for the cup of raisins it would also be 50%. Hope this helps <3

User Mert Inan
by
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