Answer:
f(1·2)
Explanation:
Subbing x=1 (f(1)) into the original function f(x)=a^x will give f(1)=a^1 which is simply equal to a. Therefore, if we were to do [f(1)]^2, we would just get a^2 because f(1) is equivalent to a. Out of the choice.s present, only f(1·2) is equal to a^2, because a^(1·2)=a^2