150k views
5 votes
Explain how the term “frontier” is Eurocentric.

User TomSlick
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

Well, depending on where is applied, this term can represent European dominance over a people. Once the Old Continent (Europe) expanded its control over the world between the 16th and 19th centuries, several areas of the globe were under the European domain. So, they create and manage the frontiers of these countries and continents as they wish, and the Europen countries didn't use to respect the original frontiers of their domains.

Step-by-step explanation:

It's normal that every term referred the to European control over America, Africa, and Asia continents as "eurocentric" once until the 19th century these locations were under their control. Europe controlled these areas based on their beliefs and political ideas.

User Ohad Meir
by
7.9k points

Related questions

1 answer
0 votes
176k views
1 answer
1 vote
76.3k views
asked Mar 25, 2024 147k views
Robert Townley asked Mar 25, 2024
by Robert Townley
8.6k points
1 answer
1 vote
147k views
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.