Answer:
Yes, Rolle's theorem can be applied
There is only one value of c such that f'(c) = 0, and this is c = 1.5 (or 3/2 in fraction form)
Explanation:
Yes, Rolle's theorem can be applied on this function because the function is continuous in the closed interval (it is a polynomial function) and differentiable in the open interval, and f(a) = f(b) given that:
![f(0)=-0^2+3\,(0)=0\\f(3)=-3^2+3\,(3)=-9+9=0](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/t8vt0l8z6km3w6z2ke5kxfigsrus79e3sa.png)
Then there must be a c in the open interval for which f'(c) =0
In order to find "c", we derive the function and evaluate it at "c", making the derivative equal zero, to solve for c:
![f(x)=-x^2+3\,x\\f'(x)=-2\,x+3\\f'(c)=-2\,c+3\\0=-2\,c+3\\2\,c=3\\c=(3)/(2) =1.5](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/foel00k9wxkvd0bvql91xcoevmknxamjeg.png)
There is a unique answer for c, and that is c = 1.5