206k views
1 vote
Please help QUICKLY! please explain your answer, please give the correct answer

Please help QUICKLY! please explain your answer, please give the correct answer-example-1
User Zooes
by
7.4k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

  • 0: 0.7056
  • 1: 0.2688
  • 2: 0.0256

Explanation:

When events are independent, the probability of some sequence of them is the product of the probabilities of the individual events in that sequence.

The probability of a child having spina bifida is 16% = 0.16, so the probability that the child will not have the condition is 1 - 0.16 = 0.84. The probability that 0 of 2 children will have spina bifida is ...

p(0 for 2) = p(0 for 1)×p(0 for 1) = 0.84×0.84 = 0.7056

__

There are two ways that 1 of 2 children can have spina bifida: either the first one does, or the second one does. These are mutually exclusive conditions, so their probabilities add:

p(1 for 2) = p(1 for 1)×p(0 for 1) +p(0 for 1)×p(1 for 1) = 0.16×0.84 +0.84×0.16

p(1 for 2) = 0.2688

__

There is one way both children can have spina bifida:

p(2 for 2) = p(1 for 1)×p(1 for 1) = 0.16×0.16 = 0.0256

__

In summary, our probability distribution is ...

p(X=0) = 0.7056

p(X=1) = 0.2688

p(X=2) = 0.0256

User Brian Chrisman
by
8.3k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories