154k views
4 votes
Help please!!!!!!!!!!

Help please!!!!!!!!!!-example-1
User Yun Huang
by
7.4k points

1 Answer

5 votes

Answer:

H. 1/9.

Explanation:

The area of a circle is calculated by solving for π
r^2.

The smallest circle has an area of π
1^2 = π * 1 = π.

The middle ring will then have an area of π
2^2 - π = π * 4 - π = 4π - π = 3π.

The largest ring will then have an area of π
3^(2) - π
2^(2) = 9π - 4π = 5π.

5π + 3π + π = 9π

So, the probability of hitting the innermost circle will be π / 9π = 1 / 9.

Your answer is H. 1/9.

Hope this helps!

User Jsdodgers
by
8.3k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories