Is log (mn) equivalent to (log m)(log n)? YES OR NO

asked Oct 5, 2021 54.5k views

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4 votes

no log(nm)=log(n)+log(m). this comes from the exponentiation rule (x^n)(x^m)=x^(n+m)

Faide answered Oct 6, 2021

by Faide

6.2k points

2 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

log(mn) = log(m) + log(n)

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