131k views
1 vote
Anyone know how to solve 35 and 39 by chance?

Anyone know how to solve 35 and 39 by chance?-example-1
User Keyr
by
5.1k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

33.
f^(-1)(7) = 6

34.
f^(-1)(2) = 3

35.
f(-8) = -4

36.
f(-1) = -2

37.
f(1) = 0

38.
x = 7

39.
f^(-1)(0) = 1

40.
f^(-1)(3) = 7

Explanation:

The inverse function
f^(-1)(x) points back from f(x) to x, that is, if we have
f(x) = y, then we have that
f^(-1)(y) = x, and if we have
f^(-1)(y) = x, then we have
f(x) = y

So we have that:

33.


f(6) = 7


f^(-1)(7) = 6

34.


f(3) = 2


f^(-1)(2) = 3

35.


f^(-1)(-4) = -8


f(-8) = -4

36.


f^(-1)(-2) = -1


f(-1) = -2

In the exercises from 37 to 40, we do the same above, but now using the values in the table given. So we have:

37.

if
x = 1,
f(1) = 0

38.

if
f(x) = 3,
x = 7

39.

We just need to find where f(x) = 0. If
f(1) = 0,
f^(-1)(0) = 1

40.

We just need to find the value of f(7). If
f(7) = 3,
f^(-1)(3) = 7

User Muhammad Suleman
by
4.6k points