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Consider another special case in which the inclined plane is vertical (θ=π/2). In this case, for what value of m1 would the acceleration of the two blocks be equal to zero? Express your answer in terms of some or all of the variables m2 and g.

User Mgoffin
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Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Consider another special case in which the inclined plane is vertical (θ=π/2). In this case, for what value of m1 would the acceleration of the two blocks be equal to zero

F - Force

T = Tension

m = mass

a = acceleration

g = gravitational force

Let the given Normal on block 2 = N

and
N = m_2 g \cos \theta

and the tension in the given string is said to be
T = m_2 g \sin \theta

When the acceleration
a=(F)/(m_1)

for the said block 1.

It will definite be zero only when Force is zero , F=0.

Here by Force, F

I refer net force on block 1.

Now we know


F = m_1g-T.

It is known that if the said


\theta=(\pi)/(2) ,

then Tension
T= m_2g
[since \sin(\pi/2) = 1],

Now making

So If we are to make Force equal to zero


F=0 => m_1g = m_2g \ or \ m_1 = m_2

Consider another special case in which the inclined plane is vertical (θ=π/2). In-example-1
User Zubietaroberto
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