Answer:
1. $ 60.00 per machine hour
2. A = $400,000 B= $30,000 , $50,000 , $350,000 (respectively)
3. Most preferred is A , because the full over/ under allocation is accounted for in the income statement.
Step-by-step explanation:
Budgeted manufacturing overhead rate = Budgeted Overheads / Budgeted Activity
= $4,800,000 / 80,000
= $ 60.00 per machine hour
Over-allocation = Actual Manufacturing Overheads < Applied Manufacturing Overheads
Under-allocation = Actual Manufacturing Overheads > Applied Manufacturing Overheads
thus,
Applied Manufacturing Overheads = Actual Activity × Budgeted manufacturing overhead rate
= 75,000 machine hours × $ 60.00
= $4,500,000
therefore,
Actual Manufacturing Overheads = $4,900,000
Applied Manufacturing Overheads = $4,500,000
conclusion :
Actual Manufacturing Overheads : $4,900,000 > Applied Manufacturing Overheads : $4,500,000
We have an under-allocation situation
Amount of under-allocated overheads = $4,900,000 - $4,500,000 = $400,000
A. Cost written off to cost of goods sold is $400,000
B.
Inventory Category Total Weight Cost Allocation
work-in-process control, $750,000 7.50% $30,000
finished goods control and $1,250,000 12.50% $50,000
costs of goods sold $8,000,000 80.00% $320,000
Total $10,000,000 100.00% $400,000
3. Most preferred is A , because the full over/ under allocation is accounted for in the income statement.