Answer:
E
Explanation: Bentham and Kant agree on which of the following?
a) Incorrect. Kant does not believe that the only thing that is good without qualification is pleasure. Rather, Kant believes that the only thing that is good without qualification is the good will ("Nothing can possibly be conceived in the world, or even out of it, which can be called good, without qualification, except a good will." I. Kant, Groundwork for the Metaphysics of Morals, First Section, Transition from the common rational knowledge of morality to the philosophical).
b) Incorrect. While Kant believes that individual rights limit what can be done in the name of maximizing aggregate happiness, Bentham does not.
c) Incorrect. While Kant believes that the good will is the only thing that is good without qualification, Bentham believes that the good is best characterized in terms of pleasure.
d) Incorrect. While Bentham believes that maximizing pleasure and minimizing pain is all that matters, morally speaking, Kant does not (Kant is not a utilitarian).
e) Correct. Both authors believe that morality puts limits on what any given individual may do in the pursuit of his or her self-interest. For example: Kant argues that one should never make a lying promise, even if it is in one's interest to do so; Bentham argues that one should maximize everyone's aggregate pleasure minus pain, not only one's own.