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Consider the function f given by f(x)=x*(e^(-x^2)) for all real numbers x.

Find the value of integral from 0 to infinity of [x*f(x)]dx given the fact that the integral from 0 to infinity of (e^(-x^2))dx = root pi / 2

User Damon Yuan
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1 Answer

1 vote

Answer:


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=(\pi)/(4)

Explanation:

We need to find the integrate of:


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx

Let's use the integration by parts rule.


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=u*v-\int vdu (1)


u=x and
du=dx


dv=f(x)dx and
v=\int f(x)dx


f(x)=xe^{-x^(2)}


v=\int xe^{-x^(2)}dx if we use change variable we can solve it, we can do
a=-x^(2) then
da=-2xdx

So we have:


v=-(1)/(2)\int e^(a)da


v=-(1)/(2)e^{-x^(2)}

Using this in (1) we have:


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=(-(1)/(2)x*e^{-x^(2)})|^(\infty)_(0)-\int^(\infty)_(0) (-(1)/(2)e^{-x^(2)})dx

The used criteria to make the first term zero is because the exponential tends to zero faster than the x tends to infinity.


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=0+(1)/(2)\int^(\infty)_(0) e^{-x^(2)}dx

We know that the integral from 0 to infinity of
e^{-x^(2)}=(√(\pi))/(2), hence:
\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=0+(1)/(2)(√(\pi))/(2)


\int^(\infty)_(0)xf(x)dx=(\pi)/(4)

I hope it helps you!

User Robert Owen
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5.3k points