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Sergey Tihon · Answer 1 · 2021-01-23T14:51:38+0000

No, it cannot because codominance is the expression of both alleles coming forth from each parent. One parent would be R(A)R(A) and the other parent would be R(B)R(B). Their offspring would only be able to be R(A)R(B). They could not be homozygous.

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