Answer:
f(x) has 1 x intercept at x=0 because there is an x value that exists when y=0. For g(x), by adding 2 to x^2 it moves the parent function up 2 so there is now no x-intercept.
Answer
f(x) has 1 x intercept at x=0 because there is an x value that exists when y=0. For g(x), by adding 2 to it moves the parent function up 2 so there is now no x-intercept.
Explanation:
5.3m questions
6.8m answers