Why might the 1848 revolution have been successful in France and not in other countries?

asked Apr 22, 2021 92.5k views

0 votes

7.0k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

2 votes

Answer:

France had already experienced revolutions so people knew what to expect and were more accepting of change.

Explanation

Off answered Apr 26, 2021

by Off

7.9k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.1m questions

10.8m answers