13.6k views
5 votes
A recipe calls for 1 part beans to 1½ parts rice. If 1½ parts of beans are used, how much rice should be used?

User Lmars
by
6.8k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

9/4 parts = 1 3/4 parts rice

Explanation:

1.5 beans * 1.5 rice/beans = 1.75 rice or 9/4 rice

User Aleph
by
7.6k points