Answer:
Using effective -rate:
Cash 35,824,122 debit
Bonds Payable 32,000,000 credit
premium on bonds payable 3,824,122 credit
--to record issuance--
Interest expense 1,970,326.73 debit
premium on BP 109,673.27 debit
cash 2,080,000 credit
--to record first interest payment--
Interest expense 1,976,358.76 debit
premium on BP 103,641.24 debit
interest payable 2,080,000 credit
--to record accrued interest to Dec 31th--
interest expense on first year:
1,970,326.73 + 1,976,358.76 = 3.946.685,49
Using Straight line:
interest expense 1.888.793,9 debit
premium on BP 191.206,1 debit
cash 2,080,000 credit
--to record first interest payment--
interest expense 1.888.793,9 debit
premium on BP 191.206,1 debit
interest payable 2,080,000 credit
--to record accrued interest for the second payment--
total interest expense:
1.888.793,9 + 1.888.793,9 = 3.777.587,8
4) Yes as investor will be willing to purchase at a higher price until get the market yield
5)
PV coupon payment $ 24,856,795.5687
PV maturity $ 10,967,326.8265
Total $ 35,824,122.3952
Step-by-step explanation:
Present value of the bond is the discounted value of the coupon payment and maturity.
C 2,080,000.000
time 20
rate 0.055
PV $24,856,795.5687
Maturity 32,000,000.00
time 20.00
rate 0.055
PV 10,967,326.83
PV c $24,856,795.5687
PV m $10,967,326.8265
Total $35,824,122.3952
Then we solve for the effective rate doing carrying value times market:
$35,824,122.3952 x 0.055 = 1,970,326.73
And the cash outlay:
32,000,000 x 0.065 = 2,080,000 debit
The difference is the amortization on premium
The striaght-line will distribute the premium over time equally:
3,824,122 / 20 = 191.206,1
this will be subtracted from the cash outlay to determinatethe interest expense.