Answer:
The answer is "No, because the two populations from which the samples are selected do not appear to be normally distributed.
Explanation:
The following are the assumptions of the two-sample t-test:
1. The variables are meant to be categorical, for the independent sampleorsample or group there should be no relationship between the subjects in each sample. It implies that subject in one group cannot be also in the second group. Hence, no one group orsample can influence the other group.
No, because the two populations from which the samples are selected do not appear to be normally distributed”.
2. The samples are meant to be drawn randomly and representative of population.
3. The plot of the data should be followed to the normal distribution
4. Homogeneity of variances. That is, the variance should be approximately equal across groups.
5. There should be no outliers.
Therefore, in this scenario the sample sizes are only provided and the scores of two samples looks not be normally distributed due to the fact that the scores are distributed in different ranges in two samples. Hence, the outliers in the scores may exist. Therefore, the answer is “No, because the two populations from which the samples are selected do not appear to be normally distributed”.