Question

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4x

does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

Answer 1

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Explanation:

Answer 2

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

next answer is x=1

Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.

Explanation:

just did it on ed