147k views
2 votes
Is 42 : 14 an equivalent fraction to

168 : 56 ??!

User Paradoxis
by
9.2k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

42 is 1/4 of 168. And 14 is 1/4 of 56

User Octavia
by
7.9k points
7 votes

Answer:

No

Explanation:

User Bfieber
by
8.8k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories