147k views
2 votes
Is 42 : 14 an equivalent fraction to

168 : 56 ??!

User Paradoxis
by
8.1k points

2 Answers

2 votes

Answer:

yes

Explanation:

42 is 1/4 of 168. And 14 is 1/4 of 56

User Octavia
by
6.9k points
7 votes

Answer:

No

Explanation:

User Bfieber
by
7.6k points