209k views
3 votes
If cos theta=0 then sec theta=0, true or false?

User Svlada
by
7.9k points

2 Answers

6 votes

Answer:

False, the guy above is right.

Explanation:

In math, it's usually considered as "Undefined."

We can easily be confused, because -1/0 might look like it's 0.

However, we must know that n OVER 0 is undefined.

User Robbie Matthews
by
7.1k points
3 votes

Answer:

False

Explanation:


\because \sec \theta = (1)/( \cos \theta) \\ \therefore \sec \theta = (1)/(0) \\ \therefore \sec \theta = \infty \:

User RobertoFRey
by
7.0k points