2 Answers

Degratnik · Answer 1 · 2021-03-20T12:36:24+0000

Lets see we have
f(x)=(3x)/(x-1) that means
$x\\eq1$ because then we would have division by zero in the denominator, so the domain is
$x\in\mathbb{R}-\{1\}$ .

Hope this helps.

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

Please log in or register to answer this question.

2 Answers

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

0 Comments

Please log in or register to add a comment.

No related questions found

Other Questions