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Are the functions f(x) and g(x) inverse of one another?

Are the functions f(x) and g(x) inverse of one another?-example-1
User Camiloqp
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1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

No!

Step-by-step explanation:

The function
f(x) doesn't have inverse because it doesn't pass the horizontal line test. This test tells us that a function
f has an inverse function if and only if there is no any horizontal line that intersects the graph of
f at more than one point. As you can see, from the graph of f (the red one), if you draw an horizontal line that passes through
y=4 then this line will touch the graph of f at three points, so the horizontal line test is not satisfied here. If you see the graph of g, this doesn't represent a function because there is at least one vertical line that touches the graph at more than one point, so this relation is not a function.

User Saad Abdullah
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