1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to read or write?

asked Jun 5, 2021 170k views

1 vote

1.Why were most Europeans in the Middle Ages unable to
read or write?

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3 votes

that means Europe doesn’t have a very high “literacy rate” idk if that helped but it’s true :) sorry ,,

Joshpk answered Jun 6, 2021

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3 votes

Answer:

Only Very High Class men were educated.

Step-by-step explanation:

Gilson Cavalcanti answered Jun 11, 2021

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