Answer:
Explanation:
It seems that this question is incomplete, and unfortunately, no reference was found in the internet. However, it seems that question is about calculating the variance and the mean of a random variable, based on its pdf (probability density funtion). Recall that a function must fulfill the following property for it to be a pdf
![\int_(-\infty)^(\infty) f(x) dx =1](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/a93mebdeqw0tajmn9s2fkt4ri0bs2ddrsk.png)
Also, recall that the following formulas
(the mean)
.
Let us illustrate this calculations with an example.
Consider the function f(x) = 2x if
and 0 otherwise. By easy calculations, we can check that f(x) is indeed a pdf (it integrates up to 1). Hence it's mean is
and the variance is given by
![\text{Var}\[X\] = \int_(0)^(1) x^2\cdot 2x dx -((2)/(3))^2= \left.(1)/(2)x^4\right|_(0)^1-((2)/(3))^2 = (1)/(2)-(4)/(9)= (1)/(18)](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/5fdpasm549pjge4je594g83wpkls60crf0.png)