Answer:
Block > Sphere > Disc > Ring
Step-by-step explanation:
Considering the cases for the rigid bodies disc, sphere and a ring in the problem, kinetic friction does no work if the bodies roll without slipping. We can assume that the bodies' surfaces and the surface of the incline are rigid and so ignore the effects of rolling friction. Each of the bodies start from the top of an incline with a height h, so KE1 = 0, PE1 = Mgh and PE2 = 0.
Since the bodies roll without slipping we have that ω = Vcm/R, the angular speed.
So Using the energy conservation equation for rigid bodies,
KE1 + PE1 = KE2 + PE2
0 + Mgh = (1/2×MVcm² + 1/2×I×ω²) + 0
Let I = cMR² = equal the moment of inertia for each of the bodies where c is a number equal to or less than 1.
Mgh = 1/2×MVcm² + 1/2×cMR²×(Vcm/R)²
Mgh = 1/2MVcm² + 1/2cMVcm²
Mgh = 1/2MVcm²(1 + c)
gh = 1/2Vcm²(1 + c)
Vcm² = 2gh/(1 + c)
Vcm = √(2gh/(1 + c))
So Case1: Disc
c = 1/2
Vcm = √(2gh/(1 + 1/2)) = √(2gh/(3/2))
Vcm = √(4/3×gh) = √(1.33×gh)
Case2: Sphere
c = 2/5
Vcm = √(2gh/(1 + 2/5)) = √(2gh/(7/5))
Vcm = √(10/7×gh) = √(1.43×gh)
Case2: Rings
c = 1
Vcm = √(2gh/(1 + 1)) = √(2gh/2)
Vcm = √(gh) = √(gh)
Now for the block of same mass M
The block starts from the top of the incline with a height h, so KE1 = 0, PE1 = Mgh and PE2 = 0. The incline is friction less so no work is done by kinetic frictional force.
KE1 + PE1 = KE2 + PE2
0 + Mgh = 1/2×MVcm² + 0
gh = 1/2×Vcm²
Vcm² = 2gh
Vcm = √(2gh)
So the velocities in order of greatest to least
Block > Sphere > Disc > Ring