Is 40(2x-16y) equivalent to 42-56y

Question

asked Nov 14, 2021 217k views

1 Answer

asked Jun 23, 2024 176k views

Anastasia Abakumova asked Jun 23, 2024

8.0k points

1 answer

3 votes

176k views

asked Dec 15, 2017 160k views

Simusid asked Dec 15, 2017

7.6k points

1 answer

5 votes

160k views

asked Nov 20, 2019 39.1k views

Nanny asked Nov 20, 2019

by Nanny

8.2k points

1 answer

2 votes

39.1k views

M Jae · Answer 1 · 2021-11-21T02:39:31+0000

Answer:

No, 40(2x - 16y) is not equivalent to 42 - 56y

Explanation:

40(2x -16y)

If we expand the above expression, we will have

80x - 16y which is not equivalent to 42 - 56y