Answer:
The answer is (b). q large and m small.
Step-by-step explanation:
We know that whenever a charged particle having charge '
' is moving with a velocity '
' through an electric field (
) and a magnetic field (
), it will experience a force, called Lorentz Force (
), given by

Now, due to this Lorentz force if the charge having mass '
' gains an acceleration '
', then

The deviation of the particle will be maximum when the acceleration of the article is maximum. Therefore to obtain the best possible resolution, according to above equation, '
' has to be large and '
' has to be small.