21.8k views
5 votes
Consider a population in which 80% of males and 60% of females are employed. In this population, 55% of individuals are females. If I pick five persons at random from this population, what is the probability that no more than one of those chosen is not employed?

User Jesu
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

The probability that no more than 1 person is not employed is 0.5077.

Explanation:

Let's denote the events as:

E = a person is employed

M = a person is male

F = a person is a female.

Given:

P (E | M) = 0.80

P (E | F) = 0.60

P (F) = 0.55

P (M) = 1 - P (F) = 1 - 0.55 = 0.45

Compute the probability that a randomly selected person is employed as follows

P (E) = P (E | M) × P (M) + P (E | F) × P (F)


=(0.80*0.45)+(0.60*0.55)\\=0.69

Then the probability that a randomly selected person is not employed is,

P (E') = 1 - P (E) = 1 - 0.69 = 0.31

Now let's assume X = number of employees that are not employed.

The sample selected is of size, n = 5.

Then the random variable
X\sim Bin(n=5, p=0.31)

The probability function of Binomial distribution is:


P(X=x)={n\choose x}p^(x)(1-p)^(n-x)

Compute the probability that no more than 1 person is not employed as follows:

P (X ≤ 1) = P (X = 0) - P (X = 1)


={5\choose 0}(0.31)^(0)(1-0.31)^(5-0)+{5\choose 1}(0.31)^(1)(1-0.31)^(5-1)\\=0.1564-0.3513\\=0.5077

Thus, the probability that no more than 1 person is not employed is 0.5077.

User Teddie
by
7.9k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories