131k views
0 votes
What is the inverse of y=cos(x-pi/2)​?

1 Answer

1 vote

Answer:

f − 1 ( x ) = arccos ( x ) + π/ 2

Explanation:

y=cos(x-pi/2)

For inverse, interchange the variables and solve for y

f − 1 ( x ) = arccos ( x ) + π/ 2

User Rob Kennedy
by
8.5k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories