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If you find a positive relationship between corruption and per capita GDP, how would you rationalize this outcome?

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Answer:

The mistake could be as Transparency International publish the index "backwards" being zero highly corrup nation while 10 a nation with low level of corruption. This could make a person to see the relationship as positive but it isn't. a higher GDP is consistent with a a governement with low levels of corruption.

Higher GDP per capita countries has lower levels of corruptions. thus a higher value in the index.

Step-by-step explanation:

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