Answer:
a) 5 units/s
b) yes
c) counter-clockwise
d) yes
Explanation:
part a
r(t) = cos (5t) i + sin (5t)j
v(t) = dr(t) / dt = -5sin(5t) i + 5cos(5t)j

Hence, the particle has a constant speed of 5 units/s
part b
a(t) = dv(t) / dt = -25cos(5t) i - 25sin(5t)j
To check orthogonality of two vectors their dot product must be zero
a(t) . v(t) = (-25cos(5t) i - 25sin(5t)j) . (-5sin(5t) i + 5cos(5t)j)
= 125cos(5t)*sin(5t) -125cos(5t)*sin(5t)
= 0
Yes, the particles velocity vector is always orthogonal to acceleration vector.
part c
Use any two values of t and compute results of r(t)
t = 0 , r(0) = 1 i
t = pi/2, r(0) = j
Hence we can see that the particle moves counter-clockwise
part d
Find the value r(t) at t=0
r(0) = cos (0) i + sin (0) j
r(0) = 1 i + 0 j
Yes, the particle starts at point ( 1, 0)