Need Help understanding this!! 40 points!!!

asked Jun 22, 2021 162k views

1 vote

by Krems

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2 votes

Angle 1 and 2 are verticals angles to a and E which means they are equivalent

Pashec answered Jun 23, 2021

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3 votes

Angles 1 and 2 are vertical angles which makes # 3 angle 1 = angle 2

Because angle 1 and 2 are vertical angles, then A and E would be similar due to the vertical angle theorem as well.

The answer would be D.

Natalija answered Jun 27, 2021

4.9k points

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