Need Help understanding this!! 40 points!!!

asked Jun 22, 2021 162k views

1 vote

by Krems

5.4k points

Please log in or register to add a comment.

2 votes

Angle 1 and 2 are verticals angles to a and E which means they are equivalent

Pashec answered Jun 23, 2021

6.6k points

3 votes

Angles 1 and 2 are vertical angles which makes # 3 angle 1 = angle 2

Because angle 1 and 2 are vertical angles, then A and E would be similar due to the vertical angle theorem as well.

The answer would be D.

Natalija answered Jun 27, 2021

4.9k points

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

5.9m questions

7.8m answers