216k views
2 votes
Which statement could be used to explain why fx) = 2x - 3 has an inverse relation that is a function?

The graph of f(x) passes the vertical line test.
f(x) is a one-to-one function
The graph of the inverse of f(x) passes the horizontal line test.
f(x) is not a function.

User Tonisha
by
7.6k points

2 Answers

5 votes

Answer:

B. f(x) is a one-to-one function.

Explanation:

User Aelius
by
9.2k points
4 votes

Answer:

f(x) is a One-one function

Explanation:

A function can only have an inverse function if it is one-one.

In order for a function to be one-one it has to pass the horizontal line test.

In other words an equation like f(x) = x^2

If you check the graph of this function you would find that it is in the shape of a parabola. In other words, more than one x-value has the same y-value. For example, x=2 and x= -2. You would find that both values give the same y-value, 4. So in this case f(x) would not pass the horizontal line test and would not be a one-one function, hence not making it an inverse.

User Exebook
by
8.9k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.