99.5k views
1 vote
Show that
∫^[infinity]_1 1/x^p dx
converges if >1 and diverges if p≤1.

User Selenia
by
8.1k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

Explanation:

Consider the integral


\int\limits^1_(-infty)  (1)/(x^p)  \, dx

for various values of p

CaseI:p =1 Then integral is ln x and for infinity this value diverges so diverges

Case 2: p<1

The integrated value would be
(x^(-p+1) )/(-p+1)

Since P <1 numerator x will have positive exponent and when infinity is substituted this will diverge

Case 3: p >1


(x^(-p+1) )/(-p+1) will have x with negative exponent. So when x = infinity this value becomes 0 thus making the integral to converge

User Jessica Nowak
by
8.0k points

Related questions

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories