Answer:
Explanation:
Consider the integral
![\int\limits^1_(-infty) (1)/(x^p) \, dx](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/i0jsx4irilnoejb46x1fwb7f66rhy5uu3x.png)
for various values of p
CaseI:p =1 Then integral is ln x and for infinity this value diverges so diverges
Case 2: p<1
The integrated value would be
![(x^(-p+1) )/(-p+1)](https://img.qammunity.org/2021/formulas/mathematics/college/ha5yjyk8u9kkg7l8kof6zcba1wtwpbyqnh.png)
Since P <1 numerator x will have positive exponent and when infinity is substituted this will diverge
Case 3: p >1
will have x with negative exponent. So when x = infinity this value becomes 0 thus making the integral to converge