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Solve please
May God bless you​

Solve please May God bless you​-example-1
User Xtiger
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1 Answer

6 votes

Answer:

We will use a Pythagorean identity and alegbra to prove this.

sin^2 + cos^2 = 1, dividing by cos^2 gives

tan^2 + 1 = sec^2.

Now, breaking down the fraction into parts and simplifying gives:

(1-sin^4)/cos^4 = 1/cos^4 - sin^4/cos^4 = sec^4 - tan^4

Now use difference of squares factoring from alegbra.

= (sec^2 + tan^2)*(sec^2 - tan^2)

By rewriting our Pythagorean identity to

sec^2 - tan^2 = 1 and tan^2 = sec^2 - 1,

we can finish the problem.

= (sec^2 + tan^2) * 1 = sec^2 + tan^2

= sec^2 + (sec^2 - 1) = 2*sec^2 - 1.

User Xiaoxia Lin
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