The inverse of f(x) is a function

asked Nov 9, 2022 120k views

1 vote

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2 votes

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

The inverse of any function is itself a function.

Chad Moran answered Nov 10, 2022

3.7k points

5 votes

The answer is BBBBBBBBBBBBB

Drashti Kheni answered Nov 13, 2022

3.5k points

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