Register
Why would the founding fathers have deemed the British government as tyrannical and illegitimate?
202k views
2 votes
Why would the founding fathers have deemed the British government as tyrannical and illegitimate?

User Smiggle
by
6.8k points

1 Answer

2 votes

Answer:

because the didnt let the americans ahave a say.

Step-by-step explanation:

User Hawkke
by
7.7k points
Ask a Question
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

8.2m questions

10.9m answers

Other Questions

What goal of the constitution was also a goal of the Magna Carta?
is it true or false that after the american revolution conflicts in the northwest territory erupted between remaining british soldiers and native americans
Who made dutch claims in north america?
How did world war 1 affect the racial and ethnic makeup of american cities
What was an effect of nationalism in Europe in the early 1900s?
Link Copied!