71.7k views
5 votes
Selecting a few households from New York City and observing whether or not they own stocks when it is known that 28% of all households in New York City own stocks. Is this experiment a binomial experiment? Explain why.

User Guy Levin
by
8.2k points

1 Answer

4 votes

Answer:

Since for each household there are only two possible outcomes, the a household owning stock is independent of any other household and there is a fixed number of trials, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

Explanation:

We have to take into consideration three things:

For each household, there are only two possible outcomes, either they own stocks, or they do not.

The probability of a household owning stock is independent of any other household, that is, for any household, the probability of someone owning stocks is 28%.

There is a fixed number of trials.

Is this experiment a binomial experiment?

Since for each household there are only two possible outcomes, the a household owning stock is independent of any other household and there is a fixed number of trials, this experiment is a binomial experiment.

User Alinoz
by
7.7k points

No related questions found

Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.

9.4m questions

12.2m answers

Categories