1 Answer

Bokmann · Answer 1 · 2022-09-20T10:01:34+0000

Answer:

$m\angle 1 = 40^\circ$

Explanation:

First, notice that the two lines are parallel as indicated by the arrow.

Therefore, by the Alternate Interior Angles Theorem:

$\angle 1\cong \angle 2$

So:

$m\angle 1 = m\angle 2$

Substitute:

(2x+20)=(3x+10)

Solve for x. Subtract 2x from both sides:

20=x+10

And subtract 10 from both sides:

x=10

We know that:

$m\angle 1 = 2x+20$

Substitute. Hence:

$m\angle 1 =2(10)+20=40^\circ$

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