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Could anyone offer a step by step on how to solve this problem?

Could anyone offer a step by step on how to solve this problem?-example-1

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Answer:


m\angle 1 = 40^\circ

Explanation:

First, notice that the two lines are parallel as indicated by the arrow.

Therefore, by the Alternate Interior Angles Theorem:


\angle 1\cong \angle 2

So:


m\angle 1 = m\angle 2

Substitute:


(2x+20)=(3x+10)

Solve for x. Subtract 2x from both sides:


20=x+10

And subtract 10 from both sides:


x=10

We know that:


m\angle 1 = 2x+20

Substitute. Hence:


m\angle 1 =2(10)+20=40^\circ

User Bokmann
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