Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's first determine the free cash flow of the firm
Particulars Years
1 2 3
EBIT 540 680 750
Tax at 36% (0.36*540) (0.36*680) (0.36*750)
Less: 345.6 435.2 480
Net Capital -
Spending 150 170 190
Change in NWC 70 75 80
Less: 125.6 190.2 210
The terminal value at the end of T =(3 years) is:



= 2011.26
Finally, the value of the firm can be computed as follows:
Years Free Cash Flow PVIF PV
1 125.6 0.6589 107.88
2 190.2 0.7377 140.31
3 210 0.6336 133.06
Terminal Value 2011.26 0.6336 1294.33
Value of the firm ⇒ $1655.58