2 Answers

Sharky Bamboozle · Answer 1 · 2022-11-10T15:13:27+0000

Answer:

$\theta$ is in quadrant II

Explanation:

Given

$\sin(\theta) > 0$ and
$\cos(\theta) < 0$

Required

Where is
$\theta$

$\sin(\theta) > 0$ and
$\cos(\theta) < 0$ imply that

$\theta$ is in quadrant II

Because that is only quadrant where
$\sin(\theta) > 0$ and
$\cos(\theta) < 0$ exist.

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