234k views
2 votes
I need help on this one
No rush but plz hurry I need it NOW‼️‼️

I need help on this one No rush but plz hurry I need it NOW‼️‼️-example-1

2 Answers

4 votes
Because Angle 2 makes a 90 degree angle and is identical to angles 1 and 5, we know that whatever angle 1 is has to equal 90 degrees in all. As you can see, angle 3 measures 42 degrees and is vertical to angle 5, meaning they measure the same amount. 90-42= 48. That is the answer for Angle 1.
User Manjit
by
6.1k points
1 vote

Answer:

The same (42 degrees)

Explanation:

This is because the angles are congruent or the same.

User Taum
by
6.8k points
Welcome to QAmmunity.org, where you can ask questions and receive answers from other members of our community.