193k views
0 votes
Can someone please explain why Feudalism is called the Middle Ages?

User Aviraldg
by
7.6k points

1 Answer

3 votes

Answer:

They were derived from the Latin words feudum (“fief”) and feodalitas (services connected with the fief), both of which were used during the Middle Ages and later to refer to a form of property holding.

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope u had a great day

User Kazinov
by
8.3k points